Dear Allin,

I am sorry that the two lines I sent in my original post do not replicate the issue in the current snapshot as they were run in an older gretl where MAIC was used as the test-down criteria and selected a smaller lag value for test-down in LRM.

Sven explained my point perfectly. If you run ADF for LRY (not LRM) as follows, you'll notice that AIC below the regression output is different from the AIC for k=0 in the test-down procedure. This is because the regression is run on the full-sample whereas the test-down is done for the lag 5 compatible sample.

adf 5 LRY --c --test-down --verbose

  k =  5: AIC = -217.928
  k =  4: AIC = -219.841
  k =  3: AIC = -220.730
  k =  2: AIC = -222.395
  k =  1: AIC = -224.395
  k =  0: AIC = -225.512

Augmented Dickey-Fuller test for LRY
including 0 lags of (1-L)LRY
(max was 5, criterion AIC)
sample size 54
unit-root null hypothesis: a = 1

  test with constant 
  model: (1-L)y = b0 + (a-1)*y(-1) + e
  1st-order autocorrelation coeff. for e: 0.195
  estimated value of (a - 1): -0.0484706
  test statistic: tau_c(1) = -1.00236
  p-value 0.7463

Dickey-Fuller regression
OLS, using observations 1974:2-1987:3 (T = 54)
Dependent variable: d_LRY

             coefficient   std. error   t-ratio   p-value
  -------------------------------------------------------
  const       0.291153     0.287768      1.012    0.3163 
  LRY_1      −0.0484706    0.0483563    −1.002    0.7463 

  AIC: -241.464   BIC: -237.486   HQC: -239.93


Now if you look at the step 2 of the coint you ran above, you will notice that the regression output is different and it belongs to the one for test-down sample.

I might be wrong, but I think adf was changed at some point to behave like this. Perhaps coint was forgotten along the way :)

Best,
Koray



On Wed, Jun 3, 2015 at 6:43 PM, Sven Schreiber <svetosch@gmx.net> wrote:
Am 03.06.2015 um 14:51 schrieb Allin Cottrell:
On Wed, 3 Jun 2015, Koray Simsek wrote:


adf runs the test-down on the common data set (N-1-maxlag) for lag
selection, but reports the "optimal" lag ADF results on the full data set
(N-1-bestlag).

coint reports the ADF results directly from the test-down run for the
"optimal" lag (N-1-maxlag).

I'm not sure I understand this. For reference I'm appending a script and
its output. I'm seeing identical single-variable ADF tests on the
variable LRM in the context of "adf" and "coint". In both cases we start
with the specified max of 5 lags and find that AIC is minimized at 5
lags, so we lose 6 observations.

I think Koray's point applies to the case where the maxlag and the best lag differ, whereas in your example they're equal. When they're different there are two different possible samples, one that starts at t0+maxlag and one that starts at t0+bestlag. His point was that adf and coint choose different samples then. (If I understood him correctly.)

cheers,
sven



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