Humour me please. Let us suppose we have an ARMAX(1,0,0) model with 2
independent variables and a constant.
ie (1-ΦB)Yt = α +µ1*X1t +µ2*X2t where B is the lag or backshift operator
Assuming Φ is positive this is equivalent to
*Yt =α + Φ*Yt-1 +µ1*X1t +µ2*X2t*
which is relatively straightforward to check against Gretl output using
the estimated coefficients and relevant rhs variables .However, the results
of doing so do not correspond to the predicted or fitted values from Gretl.
Estimating the equation via OLS, produces marginally different coefficient
estimates (all the same sign) with the exception of the intercept, and
manually checking the equation does correspond to the gretl output fitted
values for OLS similarly specified model. So my question is what is the
ARMAX prediction function in this case
Is it the expansion of the solution for Yt by dividing by (1-ΦB) ?
Here is the ARMAX estimated equation;
coef st.err z pval
const 3.81738 0.250722 15.23 2.39e-052 ***
coef st.err z pval
const 3.81738 0.250722 15.23 2.39e-052 ***
phi_1 0.492142 0.282172 1.744 0.0811 *
X1 −0.06129 0.0232348 −2.638 0.0083 ***
X2 0.183408 0.0832595 2.203 0.0276 **
Adjusted R-squared 0.645 S.D. of innovations 0.230
Log-likelihood 0.5967 Schwarz criterion 12.346
Here are the OLS equivalents
coef st.err z pval
const 1.99713 0.686194 2.910 0.0142 **
Yt-1 0.517002 0.181787 2.844 0.0160 **
X1 −0.04545 0.0152909 −2.973 0.0127 **
X2 0.183119 0.0835570 2.192 0.0508 *
S.E. of regression 0.2245 Adjusted R-squared 0.719
Log-likelihood 3.447668 Schwarz criterion 3.9368
An explanation would be helpful
Thanks
*Brian Revell*